Я теряюсь - нужно ли добавлять финальную "to":The girl has passed *me* the salad.
He has given *her* meat and vegetables.
Whom has the girl passed the salad *to*.
Whom has he given meat and vegetables *to*.
Модератор: zymbronia
Я теряюсь - нужно ли добавлять финальную "to":The girl has passed *me* the salad.
He has given *her* meat and vegetables.
Whom has the girl passed the salad *to*.
Whom has he given meat and vegetables *to*.
https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/gramm ... epositionsThere’s no necessity to ban prepositions from the end of sentences. Ending a sentence with a preposition is a perfectly natural part of the structure of modern English.
https://www.grammarly.com/blog/youve-be ... eposition/It’s not an error to end a sentence with a preposition, but it is a little less formal. In emails, text messages, and notes to friends, it’s perfectly fine. But if you’re writing a research paper or submitting a business proposal and you want to sound very formal, avoid ending sentences with prepositions.
Звучит формально и не естественно по нескольким причинам:
И тем не менее, грамматически правильно.
Показалось, что ответ ушёл несколько в сторону от вопроса, нет?
Give IO DO versus Give DO to IO(4) 'Give IO DO' cannot be changed into a wh-question with "who(m)" as IO: (x) "Who(m) did you give the book?".СпойлерПоказать(1) "I gave John the book" and "I gave the book to John" are almost the same in meaning, but DO ('the book') is somewhat emphasized (or focused) in the former, and IO ('John') in the latter.
(2) In the case both of the objects are pronouns, "I gave it to him" is more common, though some grammarians say "I gave him it" is also acceptable.
(3) When DO is a pronoun and IO is a noun phrase, choose 'Give DO to IO'. "I gave it to my son" not "I gave my son it".
In this case use 'Give DO to IO': "Who(m) did you give the book to?" or "To who(m) did you give the book?"
(5) passivization: "I was given the book" (OK), "The book was given to me"(OK), "The book was given me" (could be grammatical but rarely heard).
Интересно, что они не отличают предлогов от наречных частиц...)STRANDED PREPOSITION: Who were you talking to?
PREPOSITION BEFORE NOUN OR PRONOUN: To whom were you talking? [over-formal]
Сразу пролистал до ответа CalifJim - чуть о другом:The Difference Between 'Who' And 'Whom' ... In another thread it was pointed out to me by an AmE native speaker that 'Whom did you give the book?' was an acceptable AmE form.
This intrigued me, as in BrE, you would say 'To whom did you give the book', or 'Who did you give the book to?', but not the sentence above.
It occurs to me that if you can say (in AmE) 'Whom did you give the book', you should also presumably be able to say (in AmE) 'Whom was given the book?', where the sentence is taken as an inversion with the subject (book) at the end.
I myself cannot 'hear' 'Whom was given the book?' as a grammatical sentence. However, I'd be interested to know if anyone else can.
MrP
On whose authority do you call it ungrammatical? It sounds fine to me.This is however ungrammatical:
-> *who did you give the book
I know that most of the time the "to" occurs at the end, but not always. I Googled "who did you give" and checked the first thirty pages of hits. I found the following:
Who did you give: a raise, a mango, all the canoes, the most personal care of this kind, the money intended for the KLA, the nickname Shorty, that envelope, that?
There was no "to" at the end of any of them.
CJ
это из области синтаксиса скорее. pass и give - это ditransitive verbs, кроме прямого дополнения они также требуют непрямого, который еще называют реципиентом.
если непрямое дополнение (реципиент) идет после прямого дополнения, нужен предлог:She gave me a book.
She gave a book to me.